Question - In Matthew 26.24, and its parallel scripture Mark 14.21, the reading according to the Greek is, "The Son of Man indeed goeth, according as it is written of Him, but woe to that man through whom the Son of Man is betrayed! Good were it for him if that man had not been born." To whom does the second "him" refer?
Answer A - There is no doubt that the second "him" in the above rendering refers to Judas the betrayer of our Lord. The verses contain two solemn judgements, or expressions of judgement, on that evil person, the one, "Woe unto that man," and the other, "Good for that man if he had not been born." It is the man Judas who is in view when the Lord used the words, ouai de to anthropo ekeino, (but woe unto that man); and, kalon en auto, ei ouk egennethe ho anthropos ekeinos, (good were it for him, if was not born that man).
The translators of the A.V. and the R.V. have given a faithful
translation of the Greek text.
Answer B - There can be no doubt that a literal rendering of the Greek of the difficult part of Matthew 26.24, "good were it for him if that man had not been born," might lead the English reader to think that the words, "good were it for him," are words which the Lord applies to Himself. But this is a point upon which only those who are well versed in the idiom of the Greek language are able to judge. However, leaving the question of the Greek and the grammatical construction of the passage, and taking a survey of the verse as a whole, we ask ourselves the question, How would it have been better for the Lord if Judas has not been born? Had the Lord not said, "The Son of man goeth, even as it is written of Him" ? Could the Lord have escaped anything that was written of Him? Whilst the Lord was delivered by Judas into the hands of His own people, the Jews, and was betrayed also by them, was the Lord not also "delivered up by the determinate counsel and foreknowledge of God" (Acts 2.23)? and men carried out whatsoever God's hand and counsel foreordained to come to pass (Acts 4.28). Had the Lord not made definite choice of Judas Iscariot? "Did not I choose you the twelve, and one of you is a devil?" (John 6.70). In this verse in Matthew the Lord first speaks of Himself, then He says of His betrayer, "Woe unto that man," and He continues speaking of the man upon whom He had pronounced "woe" and says, "Good were it for him" (Judas) "if that man (Judas) had not been born". This is I judge the sense of the Lord's words.
unknown | May 1963
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