Is the veil ("covering", NIV) of 1 Cor. 11:6, 7 the same as "covering" (long hair) of verse 15? See also footnote of NIV. If not, please explain.
I consulted a competent Greek Scholar about the NIV footnotes and he commented: "The word for 'covering' in verse 15 (peribolaion) is quite different from the words used in verses 4-7 which are all derived from the verb kalupto or katakalupto. I do not believe that the word translated 'uncovered' in verse 5 means 'with no covering of hair'".
I am given to understand that although the translating panel agreed to include the interpretation in the footnote it was very much a minority interpretation.
unknown | May 1982
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