Questions And Answers

Question: What does Paul mean when he says he "pleased all men in all things" (1 Corinthians 10. 88; 9.22)? Can we do that today in the light of Galatians 1. 10?

Answers. A. The subject in these Corinthian scriptures is very different from that in Galatians chapter 1. In the latter the apostle is dealing with the gospel that he preached, the gospel of Christ,

which brings salvation to all who believe apart from works of the law. But Judaizers had been unsettling the Galatian saints, and they were in danger of "removing from Him that called" them "in the grace of Christ unto a different gospel; which is not another gospel"; they were being taught that circumcision was necessary for salvation.

It is in view of this that Paul says. "Though we, or an angel from heaven, should preach ... any gospel other than that which we preached unto you, let him be anathema." In this matter there can be no lowering of the standard. Herein we cannot please men, but must be faithful to God.

In 1 Corinthians, however, it is merely a matter of eating and drinking, and the apostle is willing to forego anything rather than hinder acceptance of the Saviour. Rather than stumble a brother he says, " I will eat no flesh for evermore "(1 Corinthians 8. 18).

We can and should do so today.

B. Paul had a clear understanding of the dispensational change that since the Lord had made all meats clean, no creature was unclean of itself, but that it was only unclean to such as thought it to be so If he did not eat in faith it was sin to him (Romans 14.14, 23). He could live in regard to meats as did the Jew or as the Gentile, and in whatever other matter it might be which did not bring him into conflict with the will of God as proper to this dispensation of grace. Men please men when they are like them. Hence it was that Peter by withdrawing himself in Galatians 2.12-14 caused great offence, and Paul withstood him to the face, because he and those who dissembled with him were walking "not uprightly according to the truth of the gospel." When the issue is the truth of the gospel, as in Galatians 1.6-10, there can be no pleasing of men. If men refuse the offer of free salvation and wish a legalized gospel of law and grace, or law without grace, and base their hopes on the perfecting of the flesh, that must be opposed to the last and not an inch of ground yielded to the enemy (1 Thessalonians 2.4, 5). Indeed where the truth of God is involved on any matter, we can never go in for a policy of adjusting God's word to suit men's ideas and tastes (2 Corinthians 4.1, 2).-J.M.

Question: Acts 7.14 refers to seventy-five souls, whereas Genesis 46.26, 27, Exodus 1.5 and Deuteronomy 10.22 all speak of seventy souls. How is this apparent discrepancy resolved?

Answer: Genesis 46.26 mentions the number 66. This omits Joseph, his two sons, also Jacob. These four added make 70.

In Acts 7.14 Stephen refers to" all his (Jacob's) kindred "as being

75.This is accounted for by the fact that the Septuagint Bible used by

Stephen adds 2 sons of Manasseh (Machir and Gilead), and 8 sons of Ephraim (Shuthelah, Talhath and Edem) making all the kindred 75.

unknown | Oct 1956
Questions And Answers